Following an acute asthma attack the patient may experience a second attack because Quizlet

3

Feedback
1
Retractions and fatigue are also a progression of symptoms that occur with an asthma attack and represent a more severe episode, but they are not the worst or most serious set of symptoms listed, because air is still moving and exchanging.
2
During an asthma attack, tachycardia, tachypnea, and prolonged expirations are common. They are early symptoms of the disease process and can be addressed without urgency.
3
Inaudible breath sounds reduced wheezing, and ineffective cough indicate that little or no air movement into and out of the lungs is taking place. Therefore, this set of symptoms represents the most urgent need, which is immediate intervention by the nurse to open up the lungs with drug management to prevent total respiratory failure.
4
Diffuse wheezing and the use of accessory muscles when inhaling indicate a progression of the severity of the symptoms, but airflow is still occurring; therefore, they do not require the most urgent action.

4. A book

Feedback
1
A patient with asthma must not be exposed to items that can exacerbate the disease process. Specific allergens, chemicals, and foods must be avoided. Flowers, food, and items that may contain dust, such as a stuffed animal, should be avoided.
2
A patient with asthma must not be exposed to items that can exacerbate the disease process. Specific allergens, chemicals, and foods must be avoided. Flowers, food, and items that may contain dust, such as a stuffed animal, should be avoided.
3
A patient with asthma must not be exposed to items that can exacerbate the disease process. Specific allergens, chemicals, and foods must be avoided. Flowers, food, and items that may contain dust, such as a stuffed animal, should be avoided.
4
Objects void of irritants, such as a book, would be an appropriate gift.

3
Feedback
1
Although coughing, wheezing, and tachycardia may also be experienced by a patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), these are not specific to COPD caused by emphysema.
2
Although coughing, wheezing, and tachycardia may also be experienced by a patient diagnosed with COPD, these are not specific to COPD caused by emphysema.
3
Barrel chest occurs because the lungs are chronically overinflated with air, so the rib cage stays partially expanded.
4
Although coughing, wheezing, and tachycardia may also be experienced by a patient diagnosed with COPD, these are not specific to COPD caused by emphysema.

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Terms in this set (34)

While assisting a patient with intermittent asthma to identify specific triggers of asthma, what should the nurse explain?
a. Food and drug allergies do not manifest in respiratory symptoms.
b.Exercise-induced asthma is seen only in individuals with sensitivity to cold air.
c.Asthma attacks are psychogenic in origin and can be controlled with relaxation techniques.
d.Viral upper respiratory infections are a common precipitating factor in acute asthma attacks

d. Viral upper respiratory infections are a common precipitating factor in acute asthma attacks

infections are one of the most common precipitating factors of an acute asthma attack. Sensitivity to food and drugs may also precipitate attacks and exercise-induced asthma occurs after exercise, especially in cold,
dry air. Psychologic factors may interact with the asthmatic response to worsen the disease but it is not a psychosomatic disease.

Priority Decision:
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an acute asthma attack. Which patient
assessment is of greatest concern to the nurse?
a.The presence of a pulsus paradoxus
b.Markedly diminished breath sounds with no wheezing
c.Use of accessory muscles of respiration and a feeling of suffocation
d.A respiratory rate of 34 and increased pulse and blood pressure

b. Markedly diminished breath sounds with no wheezing

Diminished or absent breath sounds may indicate a significant decrease in air movement resulting from exhaustion and an inability to generate enough muscle force to ventilate and is an ominous sign. The other symptoms are
expected in an asthma attack.

A patient with asthma has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results early in an acute asthma attack: pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 78
mm Hg. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
a. Prepare the patient for mechanical ventilation.
b.Have the patient breathe in a paper bag to raise the PaCO2.
c. Document the findings and monitor the ABGs for a trend toward alkalosis.
d. Reduce the patient's oxygen flow rate to keep the PaO2 at the current level.

c. Document the findings and monitor the ABGs for a trend toward alkalosis.

Early in an asthma attack, an increased respiratory rate and hyperventilation create a respiratory alkalosis with increased pH and decreased PaCO2, accompanied by
hypoxemia. As the attack progresses, pH shifts to normal, then decreases, with arterial blood gases (ABGs) that reflect respiratory acidosis with hypoxemia. During the attack, high-flow oxygen should be provided. Breathing in a paper bag, although used to treat some types of hyperventilation, would increase the hypoxemia.

What is an indication of marked bronchoconstriction with air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs in a patient
with asthma?
a.SaO2 of 85%
b.PEF rate of <150L/min
c.FEV1 of 85% of predicted
d.Chest x-ray showing a flattened diaphragm

b. PEF rate of <150L/min

Peak expiratory flow rates (PEFR) are normally up to 600 L/min and in status asthmaticus may be as low as 100 to 150 L/min. An SaO2 of 85% and a FEV 1 of 85% of predicted are typical of mild to moderate asthma. A flattened diaphragm may be present in the patient with long-standing asthma but does not reflect current
bronchoconstriction.

Priority Decision:
Which medication should the nurse anticipate being used first in the emergency department for
relief of severe respiratory distress related to asthma?
a. Prednisone orally
b. Tiotropium inhaler
c. Fluticasone inhaler
d. Albuterol nebulizer

d. Albuterol nebulizer

The albuterol nebulizer will rapidly cause
bronchodilation and be easier to use in an emergency
situation than an inhaler. It will be used every 20 minutes to
4 hours as needed. The ipratropium inhaler could be used if
the patient does not tolerate the short-acting β2-adrenergic
agonists (SABA) but its onset is slower than albuterol.
Inhaled or oral corticosteroids will be used to decrease the
inflammation and provide better symptom control after the
emergency situation is over.

Which medications are the most ef
fective in improving asthma control by reducing bronchial hyperresponsiveness,
blocking the late-phase reaction, and inhibiting migration of inflammatory cells (select all that apply)?
a.Zileuton (Zyflo CR)
b.Omalizumab (Xolair)
c.Fluticasone (Flovent)
d.Salmeterol (Serevent)
e.Montelukast (Singulair)
f.Budesonide (Pulmicort)
g.Beclomethasone (Qvar)
h.Methylxanthine (theophylline)
i.Mometasone (Asmanex Twisthaler)

c.Fluticasone (Flovent)
f.Budesonide (Pulmicort)
g.Beclomethasone (Qvar)
i. Mometasone (Asmanex Twisthaler)

These are the corticosteroids described. Zileuton (Zyflo CR) and montelukast (Singulair) are leukotriene modifiers that interfere with the synthesis or block the action of the leukotriene inflammatory mediators that cause bronchoconstriction. Omalizumab (Xolair) is an
anti-IgE, which prevents IgE from attaching to mast cells and prevents the release of chemical mediators. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting β2-adrenergic agonist bronchodilator. Methylxanthine (theophylline) is used when other long-term bronchodilators are not available or affordable.

When teaching the patient about going from a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to a dry powder inhaler (DPI), which statement by the patient shows the nurse that the patient needs more teaching?
a."I do not need to use the spacer like I used to."
b."I will hold my breath for 10 seconds or longer if I can."
c."I will not shake this inhaler like I did with my old inhaler."
d."I will store it in the bathroom so I will be able to clean it when I need to."

d. "I will store it in the bathroom so I will be able to clean it when I need to."

Storing the dry powder inhaler (DPI) in the bathroom will expose it to moisture, which could cause clumping of the medication and an altered dose. The other statements show patient understanding.

Which statements by a patient with moderate asthma inform the nurse that the patient needs more teaching about
medications (select all that apply)?
a."If I can't afford all of my medicines, I will only use the salmeterol (Serevent)."
b."I will stay inside if there is a high pollen count to pre
vent having an asthma attack."
c."I will rinse my mouth after using fluticasone (Flo
vent HFA) to prevent oral candidiasis."
d."I must have omalizumab (Xolair) injected every 2 to 4 weeks because inhalers don't help my asthma."
e."I can use my inhaler three times, every 20 minutes, before going to the hospital if my peak flow has not improved."
f."My gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) medications will help my asthma and my asthma medications will help my GERD."

a. "If I can't afford all of my medicines, I will only use the salmeterol (Serevent)."
f. "My gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) medications will help my asthma and my asthma medications will help my GERD."

Salmeterol (Serevent) should not be taken without inhaled corticosteroids. Asthma medications may make gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms worse and GERD medications may make asthma symptoms worse. The rest of the statements show patient understanding.

Priority Decision:
To decrease the patient's sense of panic during an acute asthma attack, what is the best action for
the nurse to do?
a. Leave the patient alone to rest in a quiet, calm environment.
b. Stay with the patient and encourage slow, pursed lip breathing.
c.Reassure the patient that the attack can be controlled with treatment.
d. Let the patient know that frequent monitoring is being done using measurement of vital signs and SpO2.

b. Stay with the patient and encourage slow, pursed lip breathing.

The patient in an acute asthma attack is very anxious and fearful. It is important to stay with the patient and interact in a calm, unhurried manner. Helping the patient to breathe
with pursed lips will facilitate expiration of trapped air and help the patient to gain control of breathing. Pursed lip breathing also is used with COPD for this same reason.

When teaching the patient with mild asthma about the use of the peak flow meter, what should the nurse instruct the patient to do?
a.Carry the flow meter with the patient at all times in case an asthma attack occurs
b. Use the flow meter to check the status of the patient's asthma every time the patient takes quick-relief
medication
c. Follow the written asthma action plan (e.g., take quick-relief medication) if the expiratory flow rate is in the yellow zone
d.Use the flow meter by emptying the lungs, closing the mouth around the mouthpiece, and inhaling through the
meter as quickly as possible

c. Follow the written asthma action plan (e.g., take quick-relief medication) if the expiratory flow rate is in the yellow zone

A yellow zone reading with the PEFR indicates that the patient's asthma is getting worse and quick-relief medications should be used. The meter is routinely used only each morning before taking medications and does not
have to be on hand at all times. The meter measures the ability to empty the lungs and involves blowing through the meter.

The nurse recognizes that additional teaching is needed when the patient with asthma says
a."I should exercise every day if my symptoms are controlled."
b."I may use over-the-counter bronchodilator drugs occasionally if I develop chest tightness."
c."I should inform my spouse about my medications and how to get help if I have a severe asthma attack."
d."A diary to record my medication use, symptoms, peak expiratory flow rates, and activity levels will help in adjusting my therapy."

b. "I may use over-the-counter bronchodilator drugs occasionally if I develop chest tightness."

Nonprescription drugs should not be used by patients with asthma because of dangers associated with rebound bronchospasm, interactions with prescribed drugs, and undesirable side effects. All of the other responses are appropriate for the patient with asthma.

Tobacco smoke causes defects in multiple areas of the respiratory system. What is a long-term effect of smoking?
a.Bronchospasm and hoarseness
b.Decreased mucus secretions and cough
c.Increased function of alveolar macrophages
d.Increased risk of infection and hyperplasia of mucous glands

d. Increased risk of infection and hyperplasia of mucous glands

Increased risk of infection, hyperplasia of mucous glands, cancer, and chronic bronchitis are the long-term effects of smoking.

What causes the pulmonary vasoconstriction leading to the development of cor pulmonale in the patient with
COPD?
a.Increased viscosity of the blood
b.Alveolar hypoxia and hypercapnia
c.Long-term low-flow oxygen therapy
d.Administration of high concentrations of oxygen

b. Alveolar hypoxia and hypercapnia

Constriction of the pulmonary vessels, leading to pulmonary hypertension, is caused by alveolar hypoxia and the acidosis that results from hypercapnia. Polycythemia is a contributing factor in cor pulmonale because it increases
the viscosity of blood and the pressure needed to circulate the blood. Long-term low-flow oxygen therapy dilates pulmonary vessels and is used to treat cor pulmonale. High oxygen administration is not related to cor pulmonale.

In addition to smoking cessation, what treatment is included for COPD to slow the progression of the disease?
a.Use of bronchodilator drugs
b.Use of inhaled corticosteroids
c.Lung volume-reduction surgery
d.Prevention of respiratory tract infections

d. Prevention of respiratory tract infections

Smoking cessation is one of the most important factors in preventing further damage to the lungs in COPD but prevention of infections that further increase lung damage is
also important. The patient is very susceptible to infections and these infections make the disease worse, creating a vicious cycle. Bronchodilators, inhaled corticosteroids, and lung volume-reduction surgery help to control symptoms
but these are symptomatic measures.

Which method of oxygen administration is the safest system to use for a patient with COPD?
a.Venturi mask
b.Nasal cannula
c.Simple face mask
d.Non-rebreathing mask

a. Venturi mask

A Venturi mask is helpful to administer low, constant O2 concentrations to patients with COPD and can be set to administer a varied percentage of O2. The amount of O2 inhaled via the nasal cannula depends on room air and
the patient's breathing pattern. The simple face mask must have a tight seal and may generate heat under the mask. The non-rebreathing mask is more useful for short-term therapy with patients needing high O2 concentrations.

What is characteristic of a partial rebreathing mask?
a.Used for long-term O2 therapy
b.Reservoir bag conserves oxygen
c.Provides highest oxygen concentrations
d.Most comfortable and causes the least restriction on activities

b. Reservoir bag conserves oxygen

The partial rebreathing mask has O2 flow into
the reservoir bag and mask during inhalation. The O2-conserving cannula is used for long-term therapy at home versus during hospitalization. The Venturi mask is able to deliver the highest concentrations of O2. The nasal cannula is the most comfortable and mobile delivery device.

A patient is being discharged with plans for home O2
therapy provided by an O2 concentrator with an O2-conservingportable unit. In preparing the patient to use the equipment, what should the nurse teach the patient?
a.The portable unit will last about 6 to 8 hours.
b.The unit is strictly for portable and emergency use.
c.The unit concentrates O2 from the air, providing a continuous O2 supply.
d.Weekly delivery of one large cylinder of O2
will be necessary for a 7- to 10-day supply of O2.

c. The unit concentrates O2 from the air, providing a continuous O2 supply.

Oxygen concentrators or extractors continuously supply O2 concentrated from the air. O2-conserving units will last for up to 20 hours. Portable liquid O2 units will hold about
6 to 8 hours of O2 but because of the expense they are only used for portable and emergency use. Compressed O2 comes in various tank sizes but generally it requires weekly deliveries of four to five large tanks to meet a 7- to 10-day supply.

Which breathing technique should the nurse teach the patient with moderate COPD to promote exhalation?
a.Huff coughing
b.Thoracic breathing
c.Pursed lip breathing
d.Diaphragmatic breathing

c. Pursed lip breathing

Pursed lip breathing prolongs exhalation and prevents bronchiolar collapse and air trapping. Huff coughing is a technique used to increase coughing patterns to remove secretions. Thoracic breathing is not as effective as
diaphragmatic breathing and is the method most naturally used by patients with COPD. Diaphragmatic breathing emphasizes the use of the diaphragm to increase maximum inhalation but it may increase the work of breathing and
dyspnea.

What does the nurse include when planning for postural drainage for the patient with COPD?
a. Schedules the procedure 1 hour before and after meals
b. Has the patient cough before positioning to clear the lungs
c. Assesses the patient's tolerance for dependent (head-down) positions
d. Ensures that percussion and vibration are performed before positioning the patient

c. Assesses the patient's tolerance for dependent (head-down) positions

Many postural drainage positions require placement in Trendelenburg position but patients with heart disease, hemoptysis, chest trauma, or severe dyspnea should not be
placed in these positions. Postural drainage should be done 1 hour before and 3 hours after meals if possible. Coughing, percussion, and vibration are all performed after the patient
has been positioned.

Which dietary modification helps to meet the nutritional needs of patients with COPD?
a. Eating a high-carbohydrate, low-fat diet
b.Avoiding foods that require a lot of chewing
c.Preparing most foods of the diet to be eaten hot
d.Drinking fluids with meals to promote digestion

b. Avoiding foods that require a lot of chewing

Eating is an effort for patients with COPD and
frequently these patients do not eat because of
fatigue, dyspnea, and difficulty holding their breath while swallowing. Foods that require much chewing cause more exhaustion and should be avoided. A low-carbohydrate diet is indicated if the patient has hypercapnia because carbohydrates are metabolized into carbon dioxide. Fluids should be avoided at meals to
prevent a full stomach and cold foods seem to give less of a sense of fullness than hot foods.

Delegation Decision:
The nurse is caring for a patient with COPD. Which intervention could be delegated to
unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
a.Assist the patient to get out of bed.
b.Auscultate breath sounds every 4 hours.
c.Plan patient activities to minimize exertion.
d.Teach the patient pursed lip breathing technique

a. Assist the patient to get out of bed.

Assistance with positioning and activities of daily living (ADL) is within the training of unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Teaching, assessing, and planning are all part of the RN's practice.

Which medication is a dry powder inhaler (DPI) that is used only for COPD?
a.Roflumilast (Daliresp)
b.Salmeterol (Serevent)
c.Ipratropium (Atrovent HFA)
d.Indacterol (Arcapta Neohaler)

d. Indacterol (Arcapta Neohaler) is a DPI that is used only for COPD. Roflumilast (Daliresp) is an oral medication used for COPD. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a DPI but it is also used in asthma with inhaled corticosteroids. Ipratropium
(Atrovent HFA) is used for COPD but it is delivered via metered-dose inhaler or nebulizer.

Priority Decision:
During an acute exacerbation of mild COPD, the patient is severely short of breath and the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective breathing pattern related to obstruction of airflow and anxiety. What is the best action by the nurse?
a.Prepare and administer routine bronchodilator medications.
b.Perform chest physiotherapy to promote removal of secretions.
c.Administer oxygen at 5L/min until the shortness of breath is relieved.
d.Position the patient upright with the elbows resting on the over-the-bed table.

d. The tripod position with an elevated backrest and supported upper extremities to fix the shoulder girdle maximizes respiratory excursion and an effective breathing pattern. Staying with the patient and encouraging pursed lip breathing also helps. Bronchodilators may help but can also increase nervousness and anxiety; rescue inhalers would be used before routine bronchodilators. Postural drainage is not tolerated by a patient in acute respiratory distress and oxygen is titrated to an effective rate based on ABGs because of the possibility of carbon dioxide narcosis.

The husband of a patient with severe COPD tells the nurse that he and his wife have not had any sexual activity since she was diagnosed with COPD because she becomes too short of breath. What is the nurse's best response?
a."You need to discuss your feelings and needs with your wife so she knows what you expect of her."
b."There are other ways to maintain intimacy besides sexual intercourse that will not make her short of breath."
c."You should explore other ways to meet your sexual needs since your wife is no longer capable of sexual activity."
d."Would you like for me to talk to you and your wife about some modifications that can be made to maintain
sexual activity?"

d. Specific guidelines for sexual activity help to preserve energy and prevent dyspnea and maintenance of sexual activity is important to the healthy psychologic well-being of the patient. Open communication between partners is needed so that the modifications can be made with consideration of both partners.

What should the nurse include when teaching the patient with COPD about the need for physical exercise?
a. All patients with COPD should be able to increase walking gradually up to 20 minutes per day.
b. A bronchodilator inhaler should be used to relieve exercise-induced dyspnea immediately after exercise.
c. Shortness of breath is expected during exercise but should return to baseline within 5 minutes after the exercise.
d.Monitoring the heart rate before and after exercise is the best way to determine how much exercise can be tolerated.

c. Shortness of breath usually increases during exercise but the activity is not being overdone if breathing returns to baseline within 5 minutes after stopping. Bronchodilators can be administered 10 minutes before exercise but should not be administered for at least 5 minutes after activity to allow recovery. Patients are encouraged to walk 15 to 20 minutes per day with gradual increases but actual patterns will depend on patient tolerance. Dyspnea most frequently limits exercise and is a better indication of exercise tolerance than is heart rate in the patient with COPD.

The patient has had COPD for years and his ABGs usually show hypoxia (PaO2<60 mm Hg or SaO2<88%) and
hypercapnia (PaCO2>45 mm Hg). Which ABG results show movement toward respiratory acidosis and further
hypoxia indicating respiratory failure?
a.pH 7.35, PaO2 62 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg
b.pH 7.34, PaO2 45 mm Hg, PaCO2 65 mm Hg
c.pH 7.42, PaO2 90 mm Hg, PaCO2 43 mm Hg
d.pH 7.46, PaO2 92 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg

b . These results show worsening respiratory function and failure. The results in option a show potential normal results for the patient described. The results in option c show normal
ABGs. The results in option d show alkalosis, probably respiratory, but the HCO3-results are needed to be sure.

Pulmonary rehabilitation (PR) is designed to reduce symptoms and improve the patient's quality of life. Along with improving exercise capacity, what are the anticipated results of PR (select all that apply)?
a.Decreased FEV1
b.Decreased depression
c.Increased oxygen need
d.Decreased fear of exercise
e.Decreased hospitalizations

b.Decreased depression
d.Decreased fear of exercise
e.Decreased hospitalizations

Decreasing depression, fear of exercise and hospitalizations along with improving exercise capacity are the anticipated
effects of pulmonary rehabilitation. The other options may occur but are not predicted.

What is the pathophysiologic mechanism of cystic fibrosis leading to obstructive lung disease?
a.Fibrosis of mucous glands and destruction of bronchial walls
b.Destruction of lung parenchyma from inflammation and scarring
c.Production of secretions low in sodium chloride and therefore thickened mucus
d.Increased serum levels of pancreatic enzymes that are deposited in the bronchial mucosa

c. Production of secretions lo
w in sodium chloride and therefore thickened mucus

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive, multisystem disease involving altered transport of sodium and chloride ions in and out of epithelial cells, which affects the lungs, pancreas, and sweat glands. Abnormally
thick, abundant secretions from mucous glands lead to a chronic, diffuse, obstructive pulmonary disorder in almost all patients, whereas exocrine pancreatic insufficiency occurs in about 85% to 90% of patients with CF.

What is the most effective treatment for cystic fibrosis?
a.Heart-lung transplant
b.Administration of prophylactic antibiotics
c.Administration of nebulized bronchodilators
d.Vigorous and consistent airway clearance techniques

d. Vigorous and consistent airway clearance techniques

The major objectives of CF are to relieve airway obstruction and control infection. Airway clearance techniques (ACT) are the mainstay of treatment. Aerobic exercise is also effective in clearing the airways, requiring increased nutrition and fluid, plus salt loss replacement. Antibiotics are used for early signs of
infection and long courses are necessary but they are not used prophylactically. Bronchodilators have no long-term benefit. Although CF has become a leading indication for heart-lung transplant, this treatment option is not available for most patients.

Meeting the developmental tasks of young adults with cystic fibrosis becomes a major problem primarily because
a.they eventually need a lung transplant.
b.they must also adapt to a chronic disease.
c.any children they have will develop cystic fibrosis.
d.their illness keeps them from becoming financially independent.

b. they must also adapt to a chronic disease.

The presence of a chronic disease that is present at birth and significantly lowers life span and the many treatments needed by those with CF affects all relationships and development of these patients. Although a lung transplant may be needed, not all CF patients need one. Children of a parent with CF will either be carriers of CF or have the disease. Many men with CF are sterile and women may have difficulty becoming pregnant. Educational and vocational goals may be met in those who maintain treatment programs and health.

In an adult patient with bronchiectasis, what is a nursing assessment likely to reveal?
a.Chest trauma
b.Childhood asthma
c.Smoking or oral tobacco use
d.Recurrent lower respiratory tract infections

d. Recurrent lower respiratory tract infections

In adults, most forms of bronchiectasis are associated with bacterial infections that damage the bronchial walls. In children, cystic fibrosis is the prominent cause of bronchiectasis. The incidence of bronchiectasis has decreased with the use of measles and pertussis vaccines and better treatment of lower respiratory tract infections.

In planning care for the patient with bronchiectasis, which nursing intervention should the nurse include?
a.Relieve or reduce pain
b.Prevent paroxysmal coughing
c.Prevent spread of the disease to others
d.Promote drainage and removal of mucus

d.Promote drainage and removal of mucus

Mucus production is increased in
bronchiectasis and collects in the dilated, pouched bronchi. A major goal of treatment is to
promote drainage and removal of the mucus, primarily through deep breathing, coughing, and postural drainage.

Which obstructive pulmonary disease would a 30-year-old white female patient with a parent with the disease bemost likely to be diagnosed with?
a.COPD
b.Asthma
c.Cystic fibrosis
d.α1-Antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency

d.α1-Antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency

α1-Antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is an autosomal
recessive disorder that is a genetic risk factor for COPD. AAT occurs in 1 in 1700 to 3500 live births with an onset between ages 20 and 40 years. Although cystic fibrosis occurs in 1 in 3000 white births, legislation requires babies to be screened at birth, so it would have been previously diagnosed. Asthma is a multifactorial genetic
disorder.

What is the primary principle involved in the various airway clearance devices used for mobilizing secretions?
a.Vibration
b.Inhalation therapy
c.Chest physiotherapy
d.Positive expiratory pressure

d.Positive expiratory pressure

Positive expiratory pressure (PEP) is the principle behind the airway clearance devices (ACDs) that mobilize secretions and benefit patients. Vibration, a form of chest physiotherapy, and inhalation therapy are therapies to assist patients with excessive secretions or to increase bronchodilation but they are not principles of ACDs' function.

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When a patient is experiencing an asthma attack which prescribed inhaler will the nurse have the patient use first?

Which is the priority assessment for a patient experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation?

Which factors are possible triggers for asthma exacerbations?

Which test result identifies that a patient with asthma is responding to treatment?